Pediatric Radiology > Post-Test


Post-Test

Question 1: The "double bubble" sign signifies a dilated stomach and duodenal bulb and is seen with duodenal atresia.
True
False


Question 2: All of the following are true regarding meconium ileus EXCEPT:
"Soap bubble" appearance of bowel, usually in the right lower quadrant
Small bowel obstruction
The presenting symptom in 85% of cystic fibrosis patients
Volvulus and ileal stenosis are complications, although rare


Question 3: Problem: inability to pass NG tube. What is the diagnosis?
Esophageal atresia with a tracheoesophageal fistula
Esophageal atresia without a tracheoesophageal fistula
Tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia
None of the above


Question 4: In Hirschsprung disease the most common transition site is the rectosigmoid colon.
True
False


Question 5: Appendicitis can present with which of the following?
Small bowel obstruction
Appendicolith
Right lower quadrant pain, McBurney's sign
All of the above


Question 6: What is the diagnosis?


Necrotizing enterocolitis
Meconium Ileus
Duodenal atresia
None of the above.


Question 7: In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
Pyloric length > 14mm
Pyloric muscle wall thickness > 3 - 4mm
Exaggerated peristaltic waves
Bilious vomiting


Question 8: Treatment of intussusception includes air or fluid enema under fluoroscopic guidance, or surgery if these methods fail.
True
False


Question 9: Where is the coin lodged?


Trachea
Esophagus
Carina
None of the above


Question 10: Malrotation with midgut volvulus is a surgical emergency because it may lead to bowel necrosis.
True
False


Question 11: The umbilical venous catheter tip should be within 1 cm of the diaphragm, in the IVC.
True
False


Question 12: If there is a question of pneumoperitoneum on a supine x-ray, the following x-ray's can be obtained for confirmation:
Prone or cross table lateral
Left side down decubitus or cross table lateral
Left side down decubitus or prone
None of the above


Question 13: What is the diagnosis?


Pneumoperitoneum
Pneumothorax
Pneumonia
None of the above


Question 14: Transient tachypnea of the newborn is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
Presents 4 - 6 hours after birth with respiratory distress
Typically affects premature infants
Due to delayed clearance of fetal pulmonary fluid
Usually clears by 48 - 72 hours


Question 15: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia can be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound.
True
False


Question 16: What is the image depicting?


Right upper lobe collapse
Right upper lobe mass
Normal thymus
None of the above


Question 17: Primary tuberculosis can present with all of the following EXCEPT:
Hilar adenopathy
Pleural effusion
Diffuse, small uniform nodules
Focal consolidation


Question 18: Thickening of the epiglottis in acute epiglottis, as seen on the lateral view, is called the thumb sign.
True
False


Question 19: What is the most likely diagnosis?


Mycoplasma pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Cystic fibrosis
None of the above


Question 20: The deep sulcus sign is diagnostic of a pneumothorx.
True
False


Question 21: The early filling film in a voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) allows visualization of a ureterocele, if present.
True
False


Question 22: You identify vesicoureteral reflux while performing a VCUG on a 2 year-old boy. The patient's siblings do not need to be screened for vesicoureteral reflux
True
False


Question 23: What grade of reflux is being depicted?


Grade 1
Grade 2
Grade 3
Grade 4
Grade 5


Question 24: All of the following are true regarding autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease EXCEPT:
Renal enlargement
Echogenic kidneys on ultrasound due to numerous cysts throughout the cortex and medulla
Associated with hepatic fibrosis
Associated with intracranial aneurysms


Question 25: Hydronephrosis is the most common cause of an abdominal mass in the neonate.
True
False


Question 26: What is the diagnosis?


Hydronephrosis
Multicystic dysplastic kidney
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
None of the Above


Question 27: Mesoblastic nephroma can be reliably differentiated from a Wilms tumor on imaging.
True
False


Question 28: Most neuroblastomas arise from the adrenal gland and present with a palpable abdominal mass.
True
False


Question 29: What is the diagnosis?


Wilms tumor
Neuroblastoma
Mesoblastic nephroma
None of the above


Question 30: Wilms tumor can invade the renal vein / IVC and displace vessels whereas neuroblastoma encases vessels.
True
False


Question 31: All Salter-Harris fractures involve the growth plate.
True
False


Question 32: Radiographic findings suggestive of non-accidental trauma include:
Metaphyseal corner fractures
Posterior rib fractures near the costovertebral junction
Multiple fractures at different stages of healing
All of the above


Question 33: What is the diagnosis?


Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
Bone cyst
Hip dislocation


Question 34: All of the following are true regarding Developmental Dysplasia of the hip EXCEPT:
More prevalent in males than females
Clinical findings include shortened leg, asymmetric gluteal folds, and hip clicks
Alpha angle < 60 degrees
Ultrasound is preferred if the patient is < 6 months old


Question 35: A child presents with a fever and a painful hip. It is important to exclude septic arthritis because of the unfavorable sequelae if undiagnosed and untreated.
True
False


Question 36: What is the diagnosis?


Patellar tendon rupture
Osteochondroma of the tibial tuberosity
Osgood-Schlatter disease
None of the above


Question 37: Classic radiographic findings of Langerhans cell histiocytosis include:
Punched out lytic skull lesions
Vertebra plana
Floating teeth appearance in the mandible
All of the above


Question 38: Achondrolasia results in a pelvis with tall flared iliac wings and increased acetabular angles whereas mucopolysaccharidoses result in rounded iliac wings with decreased acetabular angles.
True
False


Question 39: What is the diagnosis?


Lead poisoning
Normal variant
Leukemia
None of the Above


Question 40: Radiographic findings of Osteogenesis Imperfecta include all of the following EXCEPT:
Multiple fractures at different stages of healing
Wormian bones within the skull
Metaphyseal corner fractures
Osteopenia


Question 41: Grade IV germinal matrix hemorrhage is parenchymal hemorrhage from direct extension of a germinal matrix hemorrhage.
True
False


Question 42: Associated findings of Chiari I malformation include hydrocephalus and hydrosyringomyelia (syrinx).
True
False


Question 43: What is the diagnosis on this sagittal head ultrasound?
Germinal matrix hemorrhage
Periventricular leukomalacia
Normal
None of the Above


Question 44: All of the following are true regarding a vein of Galen malformation EXCEPT:
Arteriovenous fistula between one or more cerebral arteries and the vein of Galen
Typical presentation is high output congestive heart failure
Imaging shows a mass in the region of the posterior 3rd ventricle
Treatment is surgical removal


Question 45: An arachnoid cyst in the posterior fossa will exert mass effect on the underlying cerebellum.
True
False


Question 46: What is the diagnosis?


Sturge-Weber syndrome
Meningitis
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
None of the above


Question 47: All of the following can be present in Tuberous sclerosis, EXCEPT:
Subependymal and cortical tubers
Bilateral acoustic schwannomas
Giant cell astrocytoma
Classic triad of mental retardation, seizures, and adenoma sebaceum


Question 48: Herpes encephalitis typically affects the temporal lobes in neonates who get the infection during birth.
True
False


Question 49: What is the diagnosis?


Neurofibromatosis 1
Neurofibromatosis 2
Neurofibromatosis 3
None of the Above


Question 50: Ependymomas typically arise from the floor of the 4th ventricle whereas medulloblastomas arise from the roof of the 4th ventricle.
True
False



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